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New proof of the polynomial theorem

The article presents a new proof of the beautiful and difficult theorem of mathematical analysis, presented in such a way that it is accessible to students of the senior classes of specialized mathematical schools.

Let be f(x)- infinitely many times differentiable real function, and for each point x inRthere is a natural nsuch that f(n)(x)=0. Then f(x)polynomial.

Evidence


We need the Baire theorem on a system of closed sets:

1. Let Hand F1,F2,...,Fn,...closed subsets of a line, and H neq varnothingand H subset bigcup limitsnFn. Then in Hthere is a point which is contained in one of Fnalong with your neighborhood. More precisely, there is a point x inH, natural nand  varepsilon>0such that (x varepsilon;x+ varepsilon) capH subsetFn.

Indeed (by contradiction), choose a point x1 inHand surround it with a neighborhood  Delta1=(x varepsilon1;x+ varepsilon1)where  varepsilon1<1. We assumed that the statement of the Baer theorem is not true. Means  Delta1 capH not subsetF1. Pick in  Delta1 capHthe point x2 notinF1. Surround x2interval  Delta2=(x2 varepsilon2;x2+ varepsilon2)such that the ends of this interval are points x2 varepsilon2and x2+ varepsilon2lie in  Delta1, but  varepsilon2< frac12. By assumption  Delta2 capH notinF2. This allows you to choose in  Delta2 capHsome point x3 notinF2,...Continuing the process, we will build a nested tightening sequence of intervals.  Delta1 supset Delta2 supset...It's clear that
')
x1 varepsilon1<x2 varepsilon2<...<xn varepsilonn..., (one)
x1+ varepsilon1>x2+ varepsilon2>...>xn+ varepsilonn...(2)

Since every gap  Deltai capH neq varnothingthen  limi to infty(xi varepsiloni)= limi to infty(xi+ varepsiloni)=y,y inH, and from (1) and (2) it follows that y in Deltaifor each i. So we found the point y inHbut not in any of the sets
Fi phantom1(i=1,2,...).
We say that a point on a real line is correct if, in a certain neighborhood of this point, the function f(x)- polynomial. The set of all regular points is denoted by E. Lots of Eadditional to Edenote by Fand call the set of irregular points. (Let's say that if x inFthen x- wrong point).
2. If each point of the segment [a;b]correct then narrowing f(x)on [a;b]- polynomial.

Indeed, for each point t in[a;b]there is an interval such that the narrowing f(x)this interval is a polynomial. Those. for each point there is an interval and some kind of natural n, what f(n)(x)equals zero on this interval.

From the compactness of the segment [a;b]it follows that there is such a natural m, what f(m)(x)=0everywhere on [a;b], Consequently f(x)- polynomial.

3. If each point of the interval [a;b)correct then
constriction f(x)on [a;b)- polynomial.

Evidence. Consider the increasing sequence a=a1<a2<a3<...<an<...such that anconverges to b. As proved in the previous paragraph on each of the segments [a1;a2],...,[a1;an],...constriction f(x)- polynomial. Let be Pk(x)- polynomial coinciding with f(x)on the segment [a1;ak+1]. It's clear that Pk(x)=P1(x)for all k=2,3,...therefore P1(x)matches with f(x)on [a;b)means at the point b. (Recall that P1(x)and f(x)continuous everywhere on R).

Similar to the previous one, it is easy to prove that:

4. If each point of the interval (a;b]or interval (a;b)- correct, then f(x)- polynomial on [a;b].

We proceed to the study of irregular points, i.e. set points F.

5. The set Fdoes not contain isolated points.

Really. Let be a inF- isolated point. Then for some  varepsilon>0 phantom1[a varepsilon,a)and (a,a+ varepsilon]consist of correct points. Mean narrowing f(x)on [a varepsilon;a]and on [a;a+ varepsilon]polynomials. It is clear that with a sufficiently large n( nthere must be more degrees of each of these polynomials) fn(x)will be zero everywhere on [a varepsilon;a+ varepsilon]. Those. ais the right point.

6. Let the set Fwrong points is not empty. Set E_ {n} = \ {x: f ^ {(n)} (x) = 0 \} . It's clear that F subset bigcup limitsnEnand each Enis closed. From the Baire theorem (see 1.) it follows that there exists an interval (a;b)such that (a;b) capF neq0and (a;b) capFlies in one of En.

Consider the function f(n)(x). This function is zero at every point. x inF cap(a;b). Since every irregular point is the limit for the set Fthen f(n+k)(x)=0for all wholes k geq0and all x in(a;b) capF.

Prove that fn(x)equals 0everywhere on (a;b). Let not so. Then there is c in(a;b)such that f(n)(c) neq0. Since many Fnot empty and closed, then we find a point in it dclosest to c. For definiteness, we set d<c. Function g(x)=f(n)(x)infinitely many times differentiable on [d;c], phantom1g(d)=0and all derivatives gn(d)=0. Because g(c) neq0then by the theorem on finite Lagrange increments g(n)(x)can't be zero everywhere on (d;c)not for one natural n.


Slobodnik Semen Grigorievich ,
content developer for the application "Tutor: Mathematics" (see the article on Habré ), Ph.D. in Physics and Mathematics, teacher of school mathematics 179 Moscow

Source: https://habr.com/ru/post/353522/


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